Welcome to Your Ultimate Medical Practice Test Hub
If you are sitting at the kitchen table late at night, staring down a giant list of medical terms and feeling totally overwhelmed, take a deep breath. You are in the right place.
Getting ready for your CMA, RMA, or nursing assistant exams is no small task. You have to know everything from Medical Law and Ethics to Pharmacology and Patient Care. The massive, expensive prep companies out there love to take all this crucial practice material and lock it behind a paywall. They usually want your credit card before they even show you a single answer key.
We do things a little differently. My team and I up here in Victoria believe everyone deserves a fair shot at passing their test and advancing their career. That is why we pulled together this massive, completely free practice hub.
Below, you will find practice questions broken down into eleven specific topics. We have spent hours triple-checking every single one of these questions to make sure they mirror what you will see on test day.
Use the jump menu below to skip straight to the areas where you need the most practice. Take your time, test your knowledge, and let’s get you ready to pass.
Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. What is the difference between a Schedule IV and Schedule V drug?
a. Schedule IV requires a prescription and Schedule V does not.
b. Schedule V requires a prescription and Schedule IV does not.
c. Schedule IV has moderate potential for abuse and Schedule V has low potential.
d. Schedule V has moderate potential for abuse and Schedule IV has low potential.
2. What is the difference between Schedule II and Schedule III drugs?
a. Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and Schedule III drugs have a moderate potential for abuse
b. Schedule III drugs have a high potential for abuse and Schedule II drugs have a moderate potential for abuse
3. Which of the following is a Schedule II drug?
a. Valium
b. Heroin
c. Barbiturates
d. Cocaine
4. What is the adult normal range bleeding time?
a. 2 – 9 minutes
b. 5 – 10 minutes
c. 1 – 5 minutes
d. 7 – 15 minutes
1. B
Schedule IV
(A) The drug or other substance has a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs or other substances in schedule III.
(B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.
(C) Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in schedule III.
Schedule V
(A) The drug or other substance has a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs or other substances in schedule IV.
(B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.
(C) Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in
schedule IV.
2. A
Schedule II
(A) The drug or other substances have a high potential for abuse
(B) The drug or other substances have currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, or currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions
(C) Abuse of the drug or other substances may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.
Schedule III
(A) The drug or other substance has a potential for abuse less than the drugs or other substances in schedules I and II.
(B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.
(C) Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.
3. C
Cocaine is a Schedule II drug. In general, the following are Schedule II
• Opiates
• Stimulants
• Depressants
• Cannabinoids
4. A
Normal bleeding time values fall between 2 – 9 minutes depending on the method used.
Medical and Surgical Procedures
1. Which, if any, of the following statements are true?
a. Appendicitis is inflammation of the vermiform appendix.
b. An appendectomy is a surgical procedure to remove that organ.
c. Appendicitis may be acute, subacute, or chronic.
d. Cathartics or enemas should be administered to prepare the patient for surgery.
2. A/an _______________ is a procedure in which both the _______ ______ and some of the surrounding tissue are excised to eliminate cancer or to treat _________ or a/an ________________.
a. A radical prostatectomy is a procedure in which both the prostate gland and some of the surrounding tissue are excised to eliminate cancer or to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia or an enlarged prostate.
b. A modified prostatectomy is a procedure in which both the prostate gland and some of the surrounding tissue are excised to eliminate cancer or to treat incontinence or an enlarged prostate.
c. A radical vasectomy is a procedure in which both the prostate gland and some of the surrounding tissue are excised to eliminate cancer or to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia or an enlarged prostate.
d. A hysterectomy is a procedure in which both the prostate gland and some of the surrounding tissue are excised to eliminate cancer or to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia or an enlarged prostate.
3. __________________ are a group of tests that are performed together to detect, evaluate, and monitor disease or damage. This procedure determines levels of albumin and bilirubin, among others.
a. A standard liver panel
b. A complete blood count
c. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d. Biopsy
4. A/an ______________________________ refers to the test usually used to screen for HIV infection.
a. A standard liver panel
b. Cisternography
c. Electroencephalography
d. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
1. Which, if any, of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer: D Cathartics or enemas should be administered to prepare the patient for surgery.
2. A/an _______________ is a procedure in which both the _______ ______ and some of the surrounding tissue are excised to eliminate cancer or to treat _________ or a/an ________________.
Correct Answer A A radical prostatectomy is a procedure in which both the prostate gland and some of the surrounding tissue are excised to eliminate cancer or to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia or an enlarged prostate.
3. __________________ are a group of tests that are performed together to detect, evaluate, and monitor disease or damage. This procedure determines levels of albumin and bilirubin, among others.
Correct Answer: A A standard liver panel
4. A/an ______________________________ refers to the test usually used to screen for HIV infection.
Correct Answer D Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
Medical Specialties
1. _________is a branch of medicine that deals with the _________ system and its production of hormones, which coordinate metabolism, respiration, and excretion, among others. Medical professionals in this field treat persons with diabetes, thyroid diseases, cholesterol disorders, and metabolic disorders.
a. Endocrinology, endocrine
b. Gastroenterology, digestive
c. Hepatology, digestive
d. Urology
2. Which, if any, of the following statements about geriatrics are false?
a. Geriatrics is a branch of medicine in which the focus is health care for the aging population.
b. Geriatrics differs from gerontology, which is the study of the aging process itself.
c. A geriatrician’s practice is limited to persons over the age of 65.
d. None of the above.
3. ____________ is the medical specialty involved in the study of the liver, gallbladder, biliary tree, and pancreas and diseases such as viral hepatitis and alcohol-related conditions.
a. Hepatology
b. Immunology
c. Oncology
d. Nephrology
1. A
Endocrinology is a branch of medicine that deals with the endocrine system and its production of hormones, which coordinate metabolism, respiration, and excretion, among others. Medical professionals in this field treat persons with diabetes, thyroid diseases, cholesterol disorders, and metabolic disorders.
2. C
A geriatrician’s practice is limited to persons over the age of 65 is false. Geriatrics is a sub-specialty of internal medicine and family medicine that focuses on health care of elderly people. It aims to promote health by preventing and treating diseases and disabilities in older adults. There is no set age at which patients may be under the care of a geriatrician, or physician who specializes in the care of elderly people. Rather, this decision is determined by the individual patient’s needs, and the availability of a specialist.[i]
3. A
Hepatology is the medical specialty involved in the study of the liver, gallbladder, biliary tree, and pancreas and diseases such as viral hepatitis and alcohol-related conditions.
Medical Law and Ethics
1. Which of the following refers to the behaviors the medical professionals with moral integrity are expected to exhibit?
a. Courtesy
b. Mores
c. Customs
d. Medical ethics
2. The three issues that determine an incident of battery are:
a. The patient has been given false information about a treatment.
b. The patient is judged incompetent to consent to treatment and has received improper care.
c. Care that the patient has refused is forced upon them without court authorization.
d. All of the above
3. The four major principles of medical ethics are:
a. Autonomy, beneficence, non-malfeasance and justice
b. Privacy, autonomy, beneficence and justice
c. Autonomy, beneficence, universality and justice
d. Autonomy, beneficence, non-malfeasance and morality
1. D
The system of moral principles that practitioners apply to their values and judgments are known as medical ethics. When studied as a scholarly pursuit, this is the study of not
only practical applications in medical treatment, but the history of the practice, as well as the sociological, theological, and philosophical aspects.
2. D
All of the statements are true.
The patient was given fake information about the treatments
The patient has not only received improper care, but has been judged unable to consent to the treatment
The care was refused by the patient, but forced on them without being authorized by a court
Battery is specifically the unlawful use of physical contact.
This is different from the criminal offence of assault, which is the threat or fear of that contact. In The United States, simple battery is defined as using force against another person, with offensive or harmful contact being the end result. The term is used in a general way to describe any unlawful physical contact, although the law itself
is more specific. In particular, battery is defined as “any unlawful touching of the person of another by the aggressor himself, or by a substance put in motion by him.” In the
majority of battery cases, it is subject to statutes and can change in severity depending on each jurisdiction.
3. A
The four major principles of medical ethics are autonomy, beneficence, non-malfeasance and justice.
Autonomy: The patient can refuse their treatment, or choose a course of action
Beneficence: The doctor should always act in the patient’s best interest
Non-malfeasance: “First, do no harm” Justice: Scarce resources must be distributed according to who needs what kind of treatment and what would be fair
These are not answers to handling situations, but they are a framework for understanding the conflicts that can arise.
Medical Root and Prefix
1. The greek root -pepsia means
a. Disease
b. Digestion
c. Respiration
d. Vision
2. The Greek root -apathy means,
a. Disease
b. Viruses
c. Bacteria
d. Fever
3. The Latin root abdomin- means related to
a. The appendix.
b. The abdomen area.
c. The larynx.
d. The lungs.
1. B
The greek root -pepsia means digestion. For example, dyspepsia.
2. A
The Greek root -apathy means disease. Examples include homeopathy and naprapathy.
3. B
The Latin root abdomin- means the abdomen area. An example is abdominal.
Taking Vital Signs
Scenario: John, a 78 year old man with Dementia has been assigned to you. He fell out of his bed and sprained his wrist. He is diabetic and suffers from left-sided weakness due to a stroke. He requires total care and assistance with everything he does. He has dentures. He can no longer walk alone, feed himself, bathe or dress himself, and he is incontinent of urine and stool. His vital signs are to be monitored q 4 hrs.
Practice Questions Set 1
1. The taking of John’s vital signs includes
a. Temperature, blood pressure, respirations. and pulse
b. blood pressure, respirations, pulse and ROM
c. temperature, I&O, respirations, pulse and blood pressure
d. All of the above
2. When taking John’s blood pressure, you should make certain that
a. The cuff is the correct size
b. John is lying on his left side
c. The cuff is positioned dependent to his elbow
d. The cuff is pumped to at least 20 mm above his baseline b/p
3. The most accurate temperature is obtained when taken
a. Under the arm
b. Rectally
c. At the groin
d. In the ear
1. A
The four components of the vital sign assessment are temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and respirations.
2. A
If the cuff is not the proper width for your patient you will get a false reading on your blood pressure check.
3. B
The rectal temperature is taken within the body cavity and therefore yields the temperature which is closest to the actual body temperature.
Infection Control
1. Which type of Asepsis eliminates all microorganisms?
a. Medical Asepsis
b. Surgical Asepsis
c. All asepsis
d. None of the Above
2. Which method of Asepsis allows lotion to be applied?
a. Medical Asepsis
b. Surgical Asepsis
c. No asepsis method allows lotion to be applied
d. All asepsis methods allow lotion to be applied
3. Which method of asepsis requires hands to be held downwards while rinsing?
a. Medical Asepsis
b. Surgical Asepsis
c. All asepsis methods
d. No asepsis methods
1. B
There are two types of asepsis: medical and surgical asepsis. Medical or clean asepsis reduces the number of organisms and prevents their spread. Surgical or sterile asepsis is
practiced by surgical technologists and nurses in operating theatres and treatment areas includes procedures to eliminate microorganisms from an area and. In an operating room, while all members of the surgical team should demonstrate
good aseptic technique, it is the role of the scrub nurse or surgical technologist to set up and maintain the sterile field.
2. A
Medical Asepsis allows lotion to be applied.
3. A
Medical Asepsis requires hands to be held downwards while rinsing, while surgical asepsis requires that you hold your hands up while rinsing.
Medical Abbreviations
1. What does the medical abbreviation AED mean?
a. Automated External Defibrillator
b. Anatomical Exhibit Device
c. Alexander Entropy Discussion
d. Automated Exhibiting Defibrillator
2. What does the medical abbreviation a.c. mean?
a. After Completion.
b. Before Meals.
c. After Meals.
d. Before Bed.
3. What does the medical abbreviation ASA mean?
a. After supper.
b. Arthritis Medication.
c. Asthma Medication.
d. Aspirin.
1. A
AED stands for Automated External Defibrillator. This is the machine used to revive the heart after it has gone into full arrest.
2. B
A.C. stands for before meals. This is used most often on prescriptions, telling the patient when to take the medication.
3. D
ASA stands for aspirin. The “A” is added at the end to distinguish from the many other medical abbreviations starting with AS.
Coding and Claims (RMA and CMA)
1. What level of HCPCS covers new procedures not given a permanent CPT code?
a. Level I
b. Level II
c. Level III
d. None of the Above
2. What Level of HCPCS covers codes not covered by CPT codes?
a. Level I
b. Level II
c. Level III
d. None of the Above
3. What Level of HCPCS covers ambulance services?
a. Level I
b. Level II
c. Level III
d. None of the Above
1. C
Level III codes, also called local codes, were developed by state Medicaid agencies, Medicare contractors, and private insurers for use in specific programs and jurisdictions, for new procedures. An example might be a procedure that is covered in one State but not in another.
2. C
Level III codes, also called local codes, were developed by state Medicaid agencies, Medicare contractors, and private insurers for use in specific programs and jurisdictions, for new procedures. An example might be a procedure that is covered in one State but not in another.
3. B
Level II codes are alphanumeric and primarily include non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices, and represent items and supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I). 6
Patient Care Case 1
Your supervisor has assigned you a patient, John, a 78-year-old man with Dementia. He fell out of his bed and sprained his wrist. He is diabetic and suffers from left-sided weakness due to a stroke. He requires total care and assistance with everything he does. He has dentures.
He can no longer walk alone, feed himself, bathe or dress himself, and he is incontinent of urine and stool. His vital signs are to be monitored q 4 hrs.
Practice Questions
1. You are preparing to shave John. You need to assemble your supplies. What is the first action you should take?
a. Place a warm damp towel around his face to soften his beard and relax him
b. Check the chart to see if you should shave him and if so what type of razor you can safely use.
c. Gather your towels, razor and shaving cream and proceed to John’s room
d. Make certain John has the privacy required to perform ADL’s
2. You have checked the chart and it is safe to shave John using a standard razor. You should
a. Draw the razor in the direction of hair growth
b. Draw the razor opposite the direction of hair
growth
c. Pull the skin taut
d. Both a and c
3. In performing John’s daily care, you note that his toenails need to be trimmed. You should do which of the following?
a. Gather your supplies and carefully trim his nails
after cleaning his feet.
b. Ignore it
c. Note it in your documentation so that a doctor can
cut his nails
d. Plan to trim his nails while you are bathing him
1. C
You should always make certain a patient can be shaved and what type of razor is appropriate. If a patient is septic, it may be dangerous for the patient if you shave him at
all. Shaving risks a cut that could cause issues with his already compromised immune system.
2. D
You should always shave in the direction of hair growth which changes depending on where you are shaving. Pulling the shin taut allows shaving with minimal risk of
cutting.
3. C
The only person who can trim a diabetics nails is a doctor due to potential for infection.
Updated: Monday, March 2nd, 2026
18 Comments
Hi,
Really it is a nice blog, I would like to tell you that you have given me much knowledge about it.
thank you for my information it was very helpful.
HIE
Thanks you have helped me preparing for the exams
Thank you for you help to remember I am certified nursing Asistant
thanks for my practice – it helps a lot
very good questions
Great tests. More reflective of the test that is administered. The questions on the exam appear to confuse rather than test your knowledge.
Very useful and practical one…
Good practice. Need more questions like these.
Very useful, and insightful. Thank you
great refresher practice test. is there a refresher patient care course online.
Thank you
U have helped me to learn more about vital signs
Thanks this was very useful.
I have learned new things from your questions! thanks!
Good post!
Keep up the great writing.
thanks for the post!
D.
I’ve just forwarded this onto a coworker thanx !!
THANK YOU FOR YOUR HELP, I HAVE LEARN NEW IDEA TODAY